math-discussion-post
Normal Distribution
Take a position on whether or not the total area under a normal distribution is infinite. Provide an example to support your response.
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Also respond to this classmates post:
Normal Distribution – Infinite
After looking at some different examples of bell curves and studying what goes on with the area under the curve, I do believe that the total area is infinite. In the textbook there is a section on page 301 titled “Summary of the Properties of the Theoretical Normal Distribution” that examines the different aspects of normal distribution, and the resulting bell curves. One fact that led me to believe that the area underneath is infinite is when the book states that the line that makes the bell curve never ends up touching the x-axis. From my perspective, in order for the area to be finite it would need to connect with the x-axis somewhere, creating a break. Since it does not do that, there is always some space (no matter how small) underneath the curve, making the total area infinite.
Sources:
Bluman, Alan G. (2013). Elementary Statistics A Step by Step Approach: A Brief Version (6th ed.). McGraw-Hill Education, U.S.
